RedYellowBlueCR
07-03-2011, 12:23 AM
Hello all!
Let me first state that I am fairly new to overlcocking and understanding how a computer works on a frequency level at that. I use to be one that would just buy Part A and slap it together with Part B when it came to computers, but now I'm trying to understand them on a deeper level.
I have been trying to get into overclocking for quite sometime now. But it seems that all my information keeps getting mixed up in my head. So I am here for some clarification.
Here are my specs:
Socket AM2 AMD Athlon 64 X2 4400+ (2.3GHz per core.)
4GBs of PC2-DDR2 6400 (800 MHZ) RAM
Nvidia Geforce 9800GTX
As you can see, my machine is a little dated. So I am trying to get a little extra performance out of it. But I am having some problems understanding some things, basic concepts really... So PLEASE, correct me on anything that is wrong! I am here to learn! :)
From what I understand, the CPU is nothing but a giant FSB multiplier. It takes the FPS frequency and multiplies it greatly. In my case, my default clocks are a 230MHz FSB running at a 14x multiplier. The end result leaves me with a 3220MHz. (2.3GHz.) This is the main frequency (speed) that the entire system runs off of.
But from what I have gathered, the RAM runs at a different speed. In my case, my memory modules are rated for 400MHz, but since they are DDR modules, they can clock at double the speed which comes out to 800MHz. You can further double that speed with them up when you run them on duel channel DIMMs. (As I currently am.) So there for, my modules are running at a frequency of 1600MHz. (1.6GHz)
Here is where I am getting hung up. The processor is running MUCH faster then the RAM, but the computer as a whole can only run as fast as the RAM can transfer its memory banks to the processor. So if that's the case, then isn't my computer only running effectively at 1.6GHz? Is the rest of my computers extra processing power going to waste in this scenario? If that's the case, then what's the point of overclocking a processor at all when its stock speed is already over kill for the RAM?
I have a feeling that I am horribly wrong somewhere here and that my understanding is why off. Could someone please explain this to me? Any and all help is greatly appreciated, as always!
-RYBCR
Let me first state that I am fairly new to overlcocking and understanding how a computer works on a frequency level at that. I use to be one that would just buy Part A and slap it together with Part B when it came to computers, but now I'm trying to understand them on a deeper level.
I have been trying to get into overclocking for quite sometime now. But it seems that all my information keeps getting mixed up in my head. So I am here for some clarification.
Here are my specs:
Socket AM2 AMD Athlon 64 X2 4400+ (2.3GHz per core.)
4GBs of PC2-DDR2 6400 (800 MHZ) RAM
Nvidia Geforce 9800GTX
As you can see, my machine is a little dated. So I am trying to get a little extra performance out of it. But I am having some problems understanding some things, basic concepts really... So PLEASE, correct me on anything that is wrong! I am here to learn! :)
From what I understand, the CPU is nothing but a giant FSB multiplier. It takes the FPS frequency and multiplies it greatly. In my case, my default clocks are a 230MHz FSB running at a 14x multiplier. The end result leaves me with a 3220MHz. (2.3GHz.) This is the main frequency (speed) that the entire system runs off of.
But from what I have gathered, the RAM runs at a different speed. In my case, my memory modules are rated for 400MHz, but since they are DDR modules, they can clock at double the speed which comes out to 800MHz. You can further double that speed with them up when you run them on duel channel DIMMs. (As I currently am.) So there for, my modules are running at a frequency of 1600MHz. (1.6GHz)
Here is where I am getting hung up. The processor is running MUCH faster then the RAM, but the computer as a whole can only run as fast as the RAM can transfer its memory banks to the processor. So if that's the case, then isn't my computer only running effectively at 1.6GHz? Is the rest of my computers extra processing power going to waste in this scenario? If that's the case, then what's the point of overclocking a processor at all when its stock speed is already over kill for the RAM?
I have a feeling that I am horribly wrong somewhere here and that my understanding is why off. Could someone please explain this to me? Any and all help is greatly appreciated, as always!
-RYBCR